Is it possible that Jesus so often chose to use the title "Son of Man" to refer to himself because of its ambiguity? It could have a common place meaning such as "the man that I am" and at the same time refer to his glorification. In Mark 8:27-35 Jesus seems to use the title to tone down Peter's identifying him as "the Messiah," a title that would arouse the suspicion of the Roman rulers. "He began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer greatly and be rejected by the elders, the chief priests, and the scribes, and be killed, and rise after three days."
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